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  • Marsh67
    Bronze Seat
    • Mar 2011
    • 349

    #1

    Double touch

    How come when Mahrez double touched the ball City got a free kick, but when Hart done it from a goal kick against us (when Austin i think whacked in the net) Hart was allowed retake the goal kick, I'm going from memory here so apologies if facts are not as I remember.
  • tomfiend
    Apprentice
    • Jun 2015
    • 99

    #2
    Originally posted by Marsh67
    How come when Mahrez double touched the ball City got a free kick, but when Hart done it from a goal kick against us (when Austin i think whacked in the net) Hart was allowed retake the goal kick, I'm going from memory here so apologies if facts are not as I remember.
    This has always irked me. The no double touch from a free kick / penalty etc. is there to stop the team taking the kick from gaining any advantage - not the other way around. In our game, I believe the ref could have played advantage and given the goal, or at the very least we should have been given an indirect freekick from inside the penalty area.

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    • tomfiend
      Apprentice
      • Jun 2015
      • 99

      #3
      I think as they determine the ball to not be in play until it leaves the penalty area, that this is the reason for the retaking of the goal-kick, but that hardly seems fair - you should get punished for making an error like that.

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