How come when Mahrez double touched the ball City got a free kick, but when Hart done it from a goal kick against us (when Austin i think whacked in the net) Hart was allowed retake the goal kick, I'm going from memory here so apologies if facts are not as I remember.
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This has always irked me. The no double touch from a free kick / penalty etc. is there to stop the team taking the kick from gaining any advantage - not the other way around. In our game, I believe the ref could have played advantage and given the goal, or at the very least we should have been given an indirect freekick from inside the penalty area.Originally posted by Marsh67 View PostHow come when Mahrez double touched the ball City got a free kick, but when Hart done it from a goal kick against us (when Austin i think whacked in the net) Hart was allowed retake the goal kick, I'm going from memory here so apologies if facts are not as I remember.
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